shouri Wrote:I'd still like to point out that all of you have done a fantastic job of beating around the proper answer to the question. You've all stated that 1^inf is undefined, which i won't argue. It's true after all. But the question is, why isn't it 1 when it seems logical that the answer SHOULD be 1?
"Because it's undefined" is really a bad attempt at getting around it. You guys continue to preach this, but never give a proper answer to why logic doesn't make sense. I'll refer the original poster to my earlier post on page 1 for the proper answer.
P.S. oh, and also because its undefined >> [/sarcasm]
What the pineapple? Did you not read my post? I explained it better than you did. Refer to the entirety of my third paragraph.
Or maybe I should bold the rest of my post, because you ignored everything but those five words. In writing, those bolded words are known as a conclusion. A conclusion should not provide further evidence, nor should it explain anything you haven't touched on previously. I claimed that 1^infinity is undefined because of what I said previously, not as a standalone statement. Not only does your self-serving, dismissive post does not contribute to the discussion, you can't even be bothered to read my post before attacking me.